Pediatric sinusitis

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

Nasal physiology

Mucociliary clearance can be tested by placing saccharin on the inferior turbinate and timing the onset of sweet taste in the mouth. The normal range is 7-11 minutes.

There is normal asymmetry of nasal mucosa swelling, with one side of nose swollen as a result of dilatation of veins in the inferior turbinate and the other side "open" - 80% of the population exhibits a nasal cycle, with reciprocal changes in airflow over 1-2 hours.

Anatomy of paranasal sinuses

Sinus is a Latin word for “fold” or “pocket”. Paranasal sinuses have an embryogenic origin from the nasal passage and are an integral component of the airway. Drainage pathways of the sinuses are complex and can be blocked during inflammation. Ostia are the sinus openings in the nasal cavity. They are 2-6 mm wide.

Paranasal sinuses have an embryogenic origin from the nasal passage and are an integral component of the airway. Drainage pathways of the sinuses are complex and can be blocked during inflammation.

The outflow tract of the maxillary sinus is positioned high on medial wall, therefore intact mucociliary apparatus required to move mucus and debris from sinus into nose.

The ethmoid sinus consists of 3 to 15 air cells (on left and right sides), separated by thin bony partitions. Each air cell drains by tiny ostium into middle meatus and the ostia are easily obstructed during URI.

The frontal sinus develops from anterior ethmoid cell and achieves supraorbital position by 6 years of age. It is an uncommon site of infection in pediatrics.

The sinus ostia are the drainage routes for paranasal sinuses - because of their small diameter (1.0-2.5 mm), they are easily occluded by mucosal inflammation. This is is similar to the blockage of Eustachian tube that can lead to otitis media.

How large are the ostia of the sinuses?

The size of ostium of the maxillary sinus is 2.5 mm, the ostia of the other sinuses are smaller - in the range of 1 mm.

Location of the openings of the sinuses

- Inferior meatus - opening of nasolacrimal duct.
- Middle meatus - frontal, maxillary and anterior ethmoids
- Superior turbinate - posterior ethmoids and sphenoid sinuses

Mnemonic

Sinuses listen to the following radio channels: FM AM / PS SS

Frontal sinus, Maxillary sinus, and
Anterior ethmoids drain into Middle meatus
Posterior ethmoids and Sphenoid sinus drain into
Sphenoethmoidal recess above Superior turbinate

Sinusitis

Sinusitis of less than 4 weeks’ duration is considered acute. Chronic sinusitis persists for more than 4 weeks.

Recurrent sinusitis is defined as 4 or more episodes of sinusitis per year. Each episode lasting 7-10 days and no symptoms during intervening periods. Sinusitis is mostly preceded by rhinitis and is rarely found without rhinitis.

The 1997 Rhinosinusitis Task Force thus proposed the term Rhinosinusitis instead of Sinusitis (reiterated in 2007 guidelines).

Diagnosis

The diagnosis is clinical most of the time.

Radiographic findings suggestive of acute sinusitis:

- diffuse opacification - most common finding in children with acute bacterial sinusitis
- mucosal swelling greater than 4 mm
- presence of air-fluid level - may not occur in children

Maxillary sinus aspiration recovered bacteria from 75% of children with abnormal radiographic findings (Wald et al, 1981).

History of persistent upper respiratory symptoms predicted abnormal findings on radiographs in 88% of children younger than 6 yr of age and in 70% of children older than 6 yr of age (Wald et al, 1986).

The frequency of bacterial sinusitis peaks by 6 years of age.

According to the current guidelines, the diagnosis of acute bacterial sinusitis does not require radiographic imaging in children younger than 6 yr of age with persistent upper respiratory symptoms. The diagnosis is based on clinical findings only. There is no consensus about the need for imaging for children older than 6 yr of age with persistent symptoms and for all children with severe or worsening symptoms.

Do you need an X-ray to diagnose sinusitis in children?

Acute sinusitis in children is likely if the symptoms persist for tnan 10 but less than 30 days and they are not improing. This predicts abnormal X-ray in 88% of children yonger than 6 years. They can be treated with an antibiotic withouth an X-ray.

The "story" is different in children older than 6 years - 30% of them had a normal X-ray and this group may not need an antibiotic. Only 75% of children with abnormal X-rays had a positive bacterial sinus aspirate.

Pathogens in pediatric sinusitis

From aspiration of maxillary sinus ((Wald et al, 1981):

- Streptococcus pneumoniae, 30% to 40%
- Haemophilus influenzae, 20%
- Moraxella catarrhalis, 20%
- Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci), 4%
- no bacteria recovered from 25% of samples

The widespread use of pneumococcal vaccine has resulted in changes in prevalence. The recent data is from tympanocentesis studies of children with acute otitis media and showed decreased rate of infection with S pneumoniae and increased rate of infection with H influenzae. The data can be extrapolated to sinusitis - some ENTs consider the middle ear "a paranasal sinus."

Antibiotic resistance

- 35% of isolates of H influenzae and 100% of isolates of M catarrhalis are resistant to b-lactam antibiotics
- 25% to 50% of isolates of S pneumoniae resistant to penicillin (half are highly resistant)

"Plain old" amoxicillin will not help in those cases.

Treatment of Acute Sinusitis


Recommendations form the current guidelines

For children with uncomplicated mild to moderate acute bacterial sinusitis without risk factors (age less than 2 yr; recent use of antibiotics; attendance at daycare), give amoxicillin or amoxicillin-clavulanate, 45 to 90 mg/kg per day (in 2 divided doses).

In acute sinusitis in children, you often have to use high dose amoxicillin (90 mg per kg) - 45 mg per kg is not helful because of resistance.

In penicillin allergy, you can use cefdinir, cefuroxime, or cefpodoxime for children with mild allergy; clarithromycin or azithromycin for children with type-1 hypersensitivity (but these have low activity against Haemophilus).

If there is no effect within 72 hr, consider increasing dose of amoxicillin-clavulanate to 80 to 90 mg/kg per day (2 divided doses).

Amoxicillin-clavulanate to 80 to 90 mg/kg per day should be used in:

- patients who do not improve within 72 hr
- those who have recently received antibiotics
- moderate to severe disease

These higher doses achieve concentration needed to eradicate most highly-resistant S. pneumoniae

How long should you treat with an antibiotic?

The minimum ciurse is 10 days. A simple rule is to treat until the patient becomes symptom free plus 7 more days.

When to change the antibiotic?

If children are treated with an antibiotic, they should start to get better within 48 hours, and should feel substantially better within 72 hours. If they do not feel better within 72 hours (3 days), you either got the wrong diagnosis or the wrong antibiotic. It is reasonable to start with amoxicillin/clavunate, and if there is no effect within 72 hours, switch to cefpodoxime.

What is the role of corticosteroids nose sprays?

Some studies show modest benefit of intranasal corticosteroids. Intranasal decongestants (eg, oxymetazoline form 3 days) or saline irrigation may be useful.

References

Pediatric sinusitis. Ellen R. Wald, MD. Audio-Digest Pediatrics, Volume 55, Issue 14, July 21, 2009.


Sinusitis Practice Guideline Aims to Improve Diagnosis, Cut Antibiotic Use. AFP, 2007.

Related reading

FIT Corner Questions. Chapter 78 of the 6th edition of Middleton’s Allergy Principles and Practice, edited by N. Franklin Adkinson, et al. September 27, 2006. Chapter 78: Nasal Polyps and Sinusitis.
Unlike otitis media, visit rate for acute sinusitis among children did not decrease after pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, Pediatrics, 12/2010. http://goo.gl/gkwYm
The best price for azithromycin is at Costco: 18 tablets for $18.
SNOT-16 Assessment Tool for Acute Sinusitis takes 5 minutes - copyright protected by Washington University. Medscape, 2011.
Intranasal Treatment for Clogged Ears: ears are connected to the back of the nose via a tunnel called Eustachian tube. http://goo.gl/2XwD9

Published: 05/29/2010
Updated: 07/30/2011

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Mnemonics: Chemokines

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

CXC chemokines

P
Positive ELR (glutamic acid-leucine-arginine) chemokine CXC
PMN migration

CXCL10

1 or I
CXCL
10
IP-10
Interferon-induced T migration

Chemokines that guide T and B cell migration within lymph nodes

CXCL13 (BCA-1) - binds to CXCR5 - causes B cell migration into follicles

CCL19 (MIP-3β/ELC) and CCL21 (SLC) - both bind to CCR7 - cause T cell and dendritic cell migration into parafollicular zones of lymph nodes

Mnemonic

CXCL13 binds to CXCR5 - causes B cell migration into follicles
1 + 3 = 4, 5 (binds to CXCR5)

CCL19 and CCL21 bind to CCR7 - cause T cell cell migration into parafollicular zones of lymph nodes
9 - 2 = 7 (bind to CCR7)

What chemokine attracts naïve B cells to lymph nodes?
CXCR5. CXCL13 binds to CXCR5.

What chemokine attracts naïve T cells to lymph nodes?
CCR7. CCL19 and CCL21 bind to CCR7.

Published: 05/20/2010
Updated: 09/02/2010

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Mnemonics: Mitogens

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

B
Bacterial products - LPS, Staphylococcus aureus Cowan
B cell stimulation

Pokeweed stimulates both T cells and B cells (mnemonic: "weed is everywhere").

Published: 05/05/2010
Updated: 05/28/2010

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Typical laboratory workup for chronic idiopathic urticaria and angioedema

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

A 36-year-old male is at the clinic for evaluation of chronic urticaria and angioedema for the last 8 years. The initial workup 6-7 years ago was negative. He has hives every 2 days, and angioedema symptoms every month. He reports severe angioedema symptoms - mostly facial swelling - with "throat closing" 2-3 times per year, and then he needs to use his EpiPen. He reports no respiratory or abdominal symptoms and has no family history of angioedema. He takes NSAIDs for joint pain.

Past medical history

Chronic urticaria and angioedema, depression.

Medications

EpiPen PRN, loratidine 10 mg po daily (ran out of loratidine 10 days ago).

Physicial examination

Urticarial lesions on both arms and trunk.

Skin prick testing: negative.
Physical urticaria testing: no dermatographism

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Chronic urticaria and angioedema.

What would you recommend?

Cetirizine 10 mg po bid.
Ranitidine 150 mg po bid.

Instructed to use EpiPen in case of severe angioedema or respiratory symptoms. He does not want to take daily steroids. We asked him to stop NSAIDs and use acetaminophen (Tylenol) instead.

Laboratory tests

- CBCD
- ESR
- CMP
- Thyroid function tests (TFTs), for example, TSH, T4, and thyroid autoantibodies (antimicrosomal and antithyroglobulin antibodies)
- Total IgE
- Chronic urticaria index (positive if greater than 10) is a proprietary index, a positive result that makes autoimmune urticaria more likely
- C1q, C4, C2 levels
- C1-esterase inhibitor - qualitative and quantitative
- CH50, total hemolytic complement
- H. pylori workup, for example, H. pylori IgG (blood test)
- ANA
- RF


Diagnosis of Chronic Urticaria (click to enlarge the image).



Anti-FceR1 autoantibodies in chronic autoimmune urticaria: IgG against FceRI (receptor for IgE) (click to enlarge the image).

Why test for FceR1?

Approximately 45% of patients with chronic urticaria have an IgG autoantibody directed to the alpha-subunit of the high-affinity IgE receptor (chronic autoimmune urticaria, CAU) leading to cutaneous mast cell and basophil activation. Treatment of allergic asthma with omalizumab produces rapid reduction in free IgE levels and subsequent decrease in Fc epsilon RI expression on mast cells and basophils. In CAU, cross-linking of IgE receptors by autoantibody would be less likely, reducing cell activation and urticaria/angioedema.

In a study of 12 patients, Mean Urticaria Activity Score (UAS) declined significantly from baseline to the final 4 weeks of omalizumab treatment. Seven patients achieved complete symptom resolution. In 4 patients, mean UAS decreased, but urticaria persisted. One patient did not respond. Rescue medication use was reduced significantly, and quality of life improved (JACI, 2008).

References

Treatment of chronic autoimmune urticaria with omalizumab. Kaplan AP, Joseph K, Maykut RJ, Geba GP, Zeldin RK. J Allergy Clin Immunol. 2008 Sep;122(3):569-73.
Chronic urticaria: diagnosis and management. Khan DA. Allergy Asthma Proc. 2008 Sep-Oct;29(5):439-46.

Twitter comments

@Stolib: You check IgE levels or H. pylori studies in your chronic idiopathic urticaria (CIU) patients?

@Allergy: Depends on the clinical scenario: Typical laboratory workup for chronic idiopathic urticaria and angioedema http://goo.gl/rgDs

@Stolib: That is not how I was trained nor how I practice. I usually only lab pts only when they have failed antihistamines.

@Allergy: What if they have Hp infection that drives the process? By the time I see the CIU pts many of them have failed oral H1/H2 blockers.

@Stolib: Depends on what you considering failing antihistamines. I don't bother with HP unless symptoms suggest otherwise

@Allergy: Typical antihitsamine therapy in CIU: cetirizine 10 mg po bid and ranitidine 150 mg po bid. Would you like to describe your approach briefly, and I will publish it on AllergyCases.org, you retain authorship, of course.

@Stolib: My approach to CIU is outlined pretty well in this article written by my training program director: http://bit.ly/idYVip

@Allergy: Thank you for the reference - it's a free access article by David Khan. I will include it on AllergyCases.org http://goo.gl/JTlef

Published: 05/12/2010
Updated: 11/07/2011

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Pressure-related urticaria and angioedema

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

A 64-year-old male is here for evaluation of chronic urticaria and angioedema. His first symptoms appeared when he was 17-year-old and worsened in the last 1.5 years.

He has hives daily and angioedema symptoms affecting his lips 1-2/week. He also has complaints of delayed pressure urticaria affecting his hands, feet and gluteus (after prolonged sitting).

First episode of of urticaria when he was 16 years old that lasted for 2 months. Then urticaria began again 18 months ago and "cleared" in 6 months, after stopping lisinopril, only to reappear 5 months later. He has had chronic pressure urticaria on his hands and feet, and the gluteal area through the years. He does not want any steriods because they cause him to "blow up like a balloon."

Past medical history

GERD, Sleep Apnea, Diabetes Mellitus, Hypertension

Medications

Carvediol, cetirizine 10 mg po bid, Epi-Pen 0.3 mg/0.3 ml prn, losartan, omeprazole, ranitidine 150 mg po bid, insulin.

Physical examination

Skin: single hive - R forearm, 4-5 hives - back.

Laboratory results

CBC+DIFF: no eosinophilia.
Colonoscopy - approx. 3 years ago - normal as per patient.
CBCD and CMP - WNL.
ANA - neg.
ESR - 29.

What further testing would you recommend?

Testing for dermatographic reaction and pressure urticaria.

Physical urticaria testing:

- No dermatographic reaction to scratch with the tongue spatula on the volar surface of the forearm.

- Pressure urticaria test (he had approximately 15-pound bag over his right shoulder for 18 minutes) - he developed erythema and 3 hives in the area but no pruritus. We asked him to report delayed pressure urticaria if he develops any.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Chronic urticaria and angioedema.

What would you recommend at this point?

Cetirizine 10 mg po bid.
Ranitidine 150 mg po bid.

Instructed to use EpiPen in case of severe angioedema or respiratory symptoms.

Laboratory workup:

- Total IgE
- Thyroid function tests (TFTs), for example, TSH, T4, and thyroid autoantibodies (antimicrosomal and antithyroglobulin antibody)
- Anti-FceR1 Autoantibodies
- Chronic urticaria index (positive if greater than 10) is a proprietary index that makes the diagnosis of autoimmune urticaria more likely
- C1q, C4, C2 levels
- C1-esterase inhibitor - qualitative and quantitative
- CH50, total hemolytic complement
- H. pylori workup, for example, H. pylori IgG (blood test)
- RF

Return to the clinic in 1 month.

Summary

Testing procedures for diagnosis of physical urticarias depend on the cause (stimulus):

- Dermographism: Stroking with narrow object, e.g. a tongue depressor
- Cold urticaria: ice cube test
- Heat urticaria: test tube water at 44°C (111°F)
- Pressure urticaria: Sandbag test or a bag with heavy books (Middleton's Allergy textbook, 2 volumes)
- Vibratory urticaria: vibration with laboratory vortex for four minutes
- Cholinergic urticaria: exercise for 15-20 minutes or leg immersion in 44°C (111°F) bath
- Aquagenic urticaria: challenge with tap water at various temperatures

References


Related reading

"Palmaris slapus abdominus" - more commonly known as dermatographic urticariahttp://goo.gl/JMM6e

Published: 05/12/2010
Updated: 05/12/2011

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Neutrophilic Urticaria

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

A 48-year-old man is in the clinic today for a follow-up of chronic urticaria and delayed pressure urticaria and angioedema. A biopsy done 3 years showed neutrophils infiltrating the skin lesions without evidence of vasculitis.

He has been on Dapson 150 mg po daily and Doxepin 25 mg po qhs for 2.5 years and this regimen has decreased the intensity if his symptoms by about 25%. He had no effect with high dose oral antihistamines and Singulair in the past. He currently has hives daily, 5-15 lesions that resolve spontaneously, and no night symptoms. He has pressure-related angiodema on his back after porolonged recumbent position (sleep) approximately once a week. He reports no systemic symptoms, no shortness of breath, chest pain or fever.

Medications

Dapson 150 mg po daily and Doxepin 25 mg po qhs.

Physical examination

He has urticarial lesions on his arms and trunk (15-17 lesions). The rest of the examination is normal.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Chronic urticaria and delayed pressure urticaria and angioedema. We discussed different therapeutic options and their side effects and he would like to stay on the current treatment regimen.

References


Published: 05/12/2010
Updated: 05/12/2010

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Newly-diagnosed severe asthma

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

A 34-year-old female saw an ad in the newspaper last week and came to the clinic to be evaluated for shortness of breath. She has had shortness of breath, cough and chest tightness for the last 3 years. Her symptoms have gradually gotten worse to the point that she used 80 puffs of albuterol last week. She has symptoms at night 2-3 times per week and "goes through" 2 albuterol inhalers per month ($25 each). She goes into coughing spasms and passed out in her car 2 weeks ago. She has had 4-5 of these episodes in the past 2 years.

When seen in the clinic last week, she was diagnosed with severe asthma and placed on oral steroid course and Advair (fluticasone and salmeterol) 250/50 mcg b.i.d. At the time, her Asthma Control Test (ACT) score was 6, FEV1 was 49% of predicted and FeNO was 69.

Since then, her condition has improved a lot, she has no night symptoms and only used albuterol once.

Medications

Advair (fluticasone and salmeterol) Diskus 250/50 INH b.i.d., Flonase (fluticasone) 1 EN spray bid, Lipitor (atorvastatin) PO daily.

Physical examination

The physical examination is positive for pale boggy turbinates on both sides and slightly diminished air entry bilaterally. The rest of her examination is normal.

Procedures: Spirometry, FEV1 76%, 2.26L, FVC 69%, 2.57 L. FEV1 improved from 49% and 1.36L just a week ago. FeNO is 29 now, it was 69 last week. ACT is 20, it was 6 last week.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Severe asthma that improved significantly with oral steroids and Advair (fluticasone and salmeterol) 250/50 mcg b.i.d. both in terms of symptoms and spirometry, FeNO and ACT.

She also has allergic rhinitis that improved with nasal steroids.

What would be the next step in the management of this patient?

Stop oral steroids. Increase Advair (fluticasone and salmeterol) Diskus to 500/50 mcg b.i.d. Continue nasal steroid. Follow-up at the clinic in 4-6 weeks for consideration of adjustment of the inhaled steroid dose. Consider skin prick testing for allergens avoidance and possible immunotherapy in the future.



Severe asthma - differential diagnosis and management (click to enlarge the image).

Asthma is the most common chronic respiratory disease, affecting up to 10% of adults and 30% of children (JACI, 2011).

References


Related reading

An approach to recalcitrant, severe asthma - AAAAI Ask the Expert, 2011.

ACQ scores ≥ 1.50 and ACT scores ≤ 19 are suitable to indicate uncontrolled asthma http://goo.gl/l9Sl5

Published: 05/12/2010
Updated: 05/22/2011

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Patient with Arthritis and Hypersensitivity to Nonsteroidal Antiinflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

A 59-year-old Caucasian woman was referred to the clinic for evaluation of aspirin hypersensitivity. She had a severe reaction to aspirin which compromised of shortness of breath, "throat closing" and urticaria 5 years ago that required emergency room treatment with epinephrine, IV corticosteroids, and admission to the hospital overnight. Since then she has not taken any NSAIDs.

Approximately 7 years ago, she had a heart attack and underwent a CABG. Since then, her cardiac condition has been stable.

She has gradually developed worsening osteoarthritis affecting her knees she needs pain medications. She is on Tylenol PRN but she is reluctant to take any pain medications due to her significant history of adverse reaction to aspirin in the past.

Past medical history

Coronary artery disease and CABG surgery, hypertension, hyperlipidema, GERD, aspirin hypersensitivity.

Medications

Plavix, furosemide, Nexium, Benadryl, Toprol XL, lisinopril, simvastatin, Tylenol.

Physical examination

An old scar from the CABG, otherwise unremarkable.

What is the diagnosis?

This is a patient with aspirin hypersensitivity with a severe reaction 5 years ago.

Would you recommend aspirin "desensitization"?

Her PMH is complicated due to a history of coronary artery disease followed by CABG, she is on an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker. There is a significant cross-reactivity between aspirin and the other NSAIDs which makes the use of almost all of them contraindicated.

What alternative approach would you recommend?

The safest and best approach for this patient, who requires pain medications for her osteoarthritis, is to prescribe Celebrex and Tylenol daily and PRN. Celebrex is a COX-2 inhibitor and there is no cross reactivity with the other NSAIDS in terms of allergic reactions.

She should also continue all cardiac medications. She can return to clinic PRN.

Summary

An alternative to the graded drug challenge is to administer a highly selective COX-2 inhibitor. Highly selective COX-2 inhibitors (eg, celecoxib) are tolerated by patients with pseudoallergic reactions. These agents demonstrate at least a 200 to 300-fold selectivity for inhibition of COX-2 over COX-1 at the defined therapeutic doses.

It is generally safe for patient with a pseudoallergic NSAID reaction to take a highly selective COX-2 inhibitor, such as celecoxib. Some allergists prefer to give an initial dose in a medically supervised setting (eg, a clinic), although there are no reported cases of pseudoallergic reactions who subsequently reacted to celecoxib.

However, selective COX-2 inhibitors may be unsafe in subjects with urticaria and/or angioedema caused by hypersensitivity reactions to NSAIDs with cross-intolerance if they are intolerant to paracetamol. Allergy, 2011.

References

UpToDate, 2010.
NSAIDs are responsible for 21-25% of reported adverse drug events http://goo.gl/m6vMK
Selective COX-2 inhibitors may be unsafe in subjects with urticaria and/or angioedema caused by hypersensitivity reactions to NSAIDs with cross-intolerance if they are intolerant to paracetamol. Allergy, 2011.

Published: 05/12/2010
Updated: 08/24/2011

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Follow-up of a Patient with Common Variable Immune Deficiency (CVID)

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

A 34-year-old female is in the Allergy/Immunology clinic today for a follow-up of Common Variable Immune Deficiency (CVID). She was last seen in the clinic 3 months ago. Since then, her condition has remained stable and the level of immunoglobulin G has been higher than 700. She is receiving IVIG 90 gm IV every month. She is pre-medicated with Tylenol and oral antihistamines and is able to tolerate the infusions well and has not had any infections of the sinuses or lung infections recently. She however reports painful area in her left armpit for the past two weeks, and it looks like she is developing hidradenitis.

Past medical history (PMH)

Common Variable Immune Deficiency (CVID).

Physical examination

The physical examination is positive for induration and erythema in the right axia which was diagnosed as hidradenitis. The rest of her examination is normal.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

This is a patient with CVID which has been stable on the IVIG replacement at the dose of 90 gm of Gammaguard every month. She also has hidradenitis in the left axilla.

What would you do?

Continue Gammaguard at a dose of 90 grams IV every month. Repeat the level in three months. For her hidradenitis, we recommended Keflex 500 mg PO B.I.D. x 7days.

The patient is planning a trip to the Bahamas for a week in the coming month. She wants to know if she should take any antibiotics with her.

What antibiotics would you prescribe, if she needs any?

Regarding her trip to the Bahamas: in case she develops respiratory or gastrointestinal infection we provided her with a prescription for Levaquin 500 PO QD x 7 days. She is to return to the clinic in four months.

What are the normal serum immunoglobulin levels (IgG, IgA, IgM)?

Serum levels of IgM, IgG and IgA vary with age, gender and race.

The IgG and IgA concentrations in children show a gradual rise with increasing age. The IgA level is generally about the same in both sexes. Girls typically have higher IgM and IgG levels than boys.

The confidence interval bounded by two standard deviations about the mean excludes 5% of apparently healthy controls.

Elevated IgM, low IgA, low IgG, low IgM, and elevated IgA are the commonest changes observed in apparently healthy humans.

Humoral immunodeficiency is commonly defined as IgG, IgM or IgA level that is two standard deviations (2 SD) below the mean level for IgG, IgM or IgA, respectively, for the particular age group and gender.


Serum levels of IgM, IgG and IgA. Source: Pediatrics, 1966 and Immunologic disorders in infants and children, by E. Richard Stiehm, Hans D. Ochs, Jerry A. Winkelstein.



Typical pattern of immunoglobulin levels (IgG, IgA, IgM) in humoral immunodeficiency. Click here to enlarge the table.

References

Serum immunoglobulin levels in healthy children and adults. J. W. Stoop, B. J. M. Zegers, P. C. Sander, and R. E. Ballieux. Clin Exp Immunol. 1969 January; 4(1): 101–112.

The relationship of race, sex, and age to concentrations of serum immunoglobulins expressed in international units in healthy adults in the USA. S. E. Maddison, C. C. Stewart, C. E. Farshy, and C. B. Reimer. Bull World Health Organ. 1975; 52(2): 179–185.

Serum immunoglobulin concentrations in preschool children measured by laser nephelometry: reference ranges for IgG, IgA, IgM. D Isaacs, D G Altman, C E Tidmarsh, H B Valman, and A D Webster. J Clin Pathol. 1983 October; 36(10): 1193–1196.


Serum Immunoglobulin Levels Throughout the Life-Span of Healthy Man. Ann of Int Med, November 1, 1971, Vol. 75 no. 5 673-682.

Diagnostic Criteria for Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID): Probable and Possible Diagnosis

The diagnostic criteria are divided into three categories: definitive, probable, and possible. There are no criteria for definitive diagnosis of Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID) at this time.

To guard against the inclusion of patients who have polymorphic variants in the genes associated with immunodeficiency and to specify the clinical or laboratory finding that is most consistently abnormal in a particular disorder, the patient must fulfill an inclusion criterion that is characteristic of the disorder.

Definitive diagnosis

Patients with a definitive diagnosis are assumed to have a greater than 98% probability that in 20 years they will still be given the same diagnosis. Mutation detection is the most reliable method of making a diagnosis but a single mutation is rarely found in CVID.

Probable diagnosis

Patients with a probable diagnosis are those with all of the clinical and laboratory characteristics of a particular disorder but who do not have a documented abnormality in the gene, the mRNA, or the protein that is known to be abnormal in the disorder. They are assumed to have a greater than 85% probability that in 20 years they will be given the same diagnosis.

Probable diagnosis of CVID:

Male or female patient who has a marked decrease (at least 2 SD below the mean for age) in serum IgG AND IgA and fulfills all of the following criteria:

1. Onset of immunodeficiency at greater than 2 years of age.

2. Absent isohemagglutinins and/or poor response to vaccines.

3. Defined causes of hypogammaglobulinemia have been excluded

Possible diagnosis

Patients with a possible diagnosis are those that have some but not all of the characteristic clinical or laboratory findings of a particular disorder.

Possible diagnosis if CVID:

Male or female patient who has a marked decrease (at least 2 SD below the mean for age) in one of the major isotypes (IgM, IgG, and IgA) and fulfills all of the following criteria:

1. Onset of immunodeficiency at greater than 2 years of age.

2. Absent isohemagglutinins and/or poor response to vaccines.

3. Defined causes of hypogammaglobulinemia have been excluded

Clinical features of CVID

Most patients with CVID are diagnosed with immunodeficiency in the second, third, or fourth decade of life, after they have had several pneumonias; however, children and older adults may be affected.

Viral, fungal, and parasitic infections as well as bacterial infections may be found.

The serum concentration of IgM is normal in about half of the patients.

Abnormalities in T cell numbers or function are common. The majority of patients have normal numbers of B cells; however, some have low or absent B cells.

Approximately 50% of patients have autoimmune manifestations. There is an increased risk of malignancy.

Differential diagnosis of hypogammaglobulinemia includes drug-induced, for example secondary to glucocorticoids (steroids).

References

Diagnostic Criteria for Primary Immunodeficiencies. Mary Ellen Conley, Luigi D. Notarangelo, and Amos Etzioni Representing PAGID (Pan-American Group for Immunodeficiency) and ESID (European Society for Immunodeficiencies). Clinical Immunology, Vol. 93, No. 3, December, pp. 190–197, 1999.

Recognizing Primary Immune Deficiency in Clinical Practice. Clinical and Vaccine Immunology, March 2006, p. 329-332, Vol. 13, No. 3.

Frequency of follow-up visits in a patient receiving intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) infusions - every 6 months? AAAAI Ask the Expert, 2011.

Outcome of allogeneic stem cell transplantation (ASCT) in adults with common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) (JACI, 2011).

Published: 05/12/2010
Updated: 11/23/2011

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Mnemonics: Subcutaneous Immunotherapy (SCIT)

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

Mixing allergen extracts with high protease content

Mnemonic

M
Mold
Mite - cockroach has even more proteases than mite
Mixing problems - proteases degarade grass extracts in particular and decrease their potency

References

Allergen-specific immunotherapy for respiratory allergies: From meta-analysis to registration and beyond. JACI, 2010.
Allergen immunotherapy practice in the United States: guidelines, measures, and outcomes (2011) http://goo.gl/xHYjG

Published: 05/09/2010
Updated: 09/09/2011

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Mnemonics: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

Mnemonic for Cheese washer's lung

C
Cheese washer's lung (moldy cheese)
Casei, Penicillium casei
Clavatus, Aspergillus clavatus

Published: 05/09/2010
Updated: 05/09/2010

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Food-dependent exercise-induced anaphylaxis (FDEIA)

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

Food-dependent exercise-induced anaphylaxis (FDEIA) is a special form of food allergy where a food-intake alone does not induce any symptoms. Anaphylaxis occurs only when triggering factors such as exercise or aspirin-intake are added after ingestion of the causative food.

Clinical features of FDEIA

In FDEIA, patients develop anaphylaxis after eating and exercising. They have no symptoms are rest.

Sequence of events: eating --> exercise --> anaphylaxis

There are two types of patients with food-dependent EIA ("generalists" and "specialists"):

- Patients who develop anaphylaxis when exercising in temporal proximity to ingestion of any
type of food ("generalists")

- Patients who develop anaphylaxis with exercise only with ingestion of a specific food ("specialists")

Foods associated with FDEIA

Wheat is the most common food associated with food-dependent exercise-induced anaphylaxis (FDEIA). Both exercise and aspirin-intake facilitate allergen absorption from the gastrointestinal tract.

80% of the patients with wheat-induced FDEIA have IgE reacting to omega-5 gliadin and the remaining of the patients to high molecular weight glutenin (HMW-glutenin).

Foods associated with FDEIA

- Wheat
- Buckwheat
- Crustaceans
- Cephalopods
- Celery
- Chicken
- Grapes
- Tomato
- Dairy products
- Mushrooms

Management of FDEIA

Management of food-dependent EIA includes:

- avoiding exercising in proximity to food consumption (4-6 hours)
- carrying self-injectable epinephrine (EpiPen)
- exercising with a partner
- wearing a medical alert bracelet which lists the condition FDEIA and treatment (EpiPen)

Which of the following foods is often associated with food-dependent exercise-induced anaphylaxis (FDEIA)?

(A) peanut
(B) fish
(C) wheat
(D) soy
(E) egg
(F) milk

Answer: C.

References

Food-Dependent Exercise-Induced Anaphylaxis-Importance of Omega-5 Gliadin and HMW-Glutenin as Causative Antigens for Wheat-Dependent Exercise-Induced Anaphylaxis. Morita E, Matsuo H, Chinuki Y, Takahashi H, Dahlström J, Tanaka A. Allergol Int. 2009 Oct 25;58(4).
LTP and PG2A are tomato allergens http://goo.gl/C4Hhv
Anaphylaxis guidelines by World Allergy Organization. JACI, 2011.

Published: 05/09/2010
Updated: 02/09/2011

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STAT-1 Deficiency

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

The autosomal recessive form of human complete Stat-1 deficiency is a rare disorder. Stat-1 deficiency is associated with impaired cellular responses to both IFN-gamma and IFN-alpha/beta via Stat-1-containing complexes.

Two unrelated patients developed disseminated bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) and subsequently died of viral illnesses. A third patient with complete Stat-1 deficiency and disseminated BCG infection, died 3 mo after bone marrow transplantation.

Stat-1 deficiency is a severe form of innate immunodeficiency. Stat-1 deficiency should be suspected in children with severe infections, notably but not exclusively patients with mycobacterial or viral diseases.

A deficiency in STAT 1 transcription factor can lead to increased susceptibility to which of the following infections?

(A) Herpes encephalitis
(B) Meningococcal meningitis
(C) Pneumococcal pneumonia
(D) Staphylococcal osteomyelitis
(E) Disseminated infection after BCG immunization

Correct answers: A and E

References

Human Complete Stat-1 Deficiency Is Associated with Defective Type I and II IFN Responses In Vitro but Immunity to Some Low Virulence Viruses In Vivo. Ariane Chapgier et al. The Journal of Immunology, 2006, 176: 5078-5083.
http://www.jimmunol.org/cgi/content/abstract/176/8/5078

Published: 05/09/2010
Updated: 05/09/2010

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Neutrophil actin dysfunction

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

Neutrophils and other phagocytes migrate to the site of infection, ingest pathogens, and destroy them after releasing granule contents and active oxygen. These activities are closely associated with a rapid reorganization of the cytoskeleton, in which actin polymerizes, cross-links, anchors to the membrane and depolymerizes under the control of various actin-associated proteins.

Defect in actin results in neutrophil cytoskeletal disease where abnormality primarily appears as motility or chemotactic defect of the cells.

The first case of neutrophil actin dysfunction (NAD) was reported in 1974, a male infant with a severe neutrophil motility disorder and poorly polymerizable actin in PMN extracts. NAD is associated with a true defect in PMN actin assembly and is a genetic disorder that is recessively inherited.

Which of the the following conditions is associated with impaired phagocytic uptake:

(A) neutrophil actin dysfunction
(B) cyclic neutropenia
(C) hyper-IgM syndrome
(D) CVID
(E) IgA deficiency
(F) Kostmann' syndrome, severe congenital neutropenia (SCN)

Correct answer: A

References

Neutrophil actin dysfunction is a genetic disorder associated with partial impairment of neutrophil actin assembly in three family members. F S Southwick, G A Dabiri, and T P Stossel. J Clin Invest. 1988 November; 82(5): 1525–1531.
Neutrophil Cytoskeletal Disease. International Journal of Hematology, 2001.

Published: 05/09/2010
Updated: 05/09/2010

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Pollen-Food Allergy Syndrome (PFAS) or Oral Allergy Syndrome (OAS)

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

Oral allergy syndrome (OAS, pollen-food allergy syndrome) is contact urticaria of the oropharynx. OAS is caused by allergens in fruits, vegetables, tree nuts, and peanuts that are homologous to pollen allergens.

Oral allergy syndrome (OAS) occurs in patients with a prior cross-reactive aeroallergen sensitization and clinically presents with oralpharyngeal symptoms after ingestion of a triggering fruit or vegetable.

Although controversial, these symptoms may progress to systemic symptoms outside the gastrointestinal tract in 8.7% of patients and anaphylactic shock in 1.7%.

OAS's underlying pathophysiology may play a role in clinical presentation and outcome, depending on whether the cross-reactive protein is a heat-labile PR-10 protein, a partially labile profilin, or a relatively heat-stable lipid transfer protein. Profilin is an actin-binding protein involved in the restructuring of the actin cytoskeleton. It is found in all eukaryotic organisms in most cells.

PAS is caused by raw fruits or vegetables, cooked foods are well tolerated. There are a number of cross-reactive allergens in pollen and plant foods. The sequence is:

- primary respiratory sensitization to pollen

- then reaction to food ingestion

Typical cross-reactive associations:

BIRCH - Apple, peach, apricot, hazelnut, potato, carrot, celery
RAGWEED - Banana, cucumber, cantaloupe, watermelon, zucchini, cucumber
MUGWORT - Celery, onion, mustard, cabbage


Cross-reactivity in Pollen-Food Allergy Syndrome (PFAS) or Oral Allergy Syndrome (OAS) (click to enlarge the image).

Diagnosis

Diagnostic testing is variable based on the underlying food tested, but fresh food skin prick test typically has the highest sensitivity.

Treatment

Treatment centers on avoidance and the consideration of self-injectable epinephrine. Because of its relationship with a cross-reactive aeroallergen sensitization, subcutaneous immunotherapy and sublingual immunotherapy have also been therapeutically tried with mixed results.

In patients with OAS to apple, tolerance can be induced with consumption of apple - but OAS recurs on discontinuation (Allergy, 2011).

Which allergen cross-reacts with Bet v1 (birch)?

(A) Ara h1 (peanut)
(B) Mal d 1 (apple)
(C) Ara h3 (peanut)
(D) Bos d (milk)
(E) Gal d (egg)
(F) Hev b2 (latex)

Answer: B, apple. Pollen sensitizations linked to food allergies was first reported with birch pollen and apples 50 years ago.

For patients:

Do raw or fresh fruits leave you sneezing, sniffling and with an itchy mouth, lips and throat? You may have oral allergy syndrome.

References

Oral allergy syndrome: a clinical, diagnostic, and therapeutic challenge. Webber CM, England RW. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol. 2010 Feb;104(2):101-8; quiz 109-10, 117.
Interactive Allergy Map by Greer Labs. Click your state to find region-specific, common airborne allergens there.
Profilin may be a pan-allergen among plants that crossreacts between pollen, fruits, vegetables and latex http://goo.gl/ZUPRQ
Birch-Apple Syndrome Treated with Birch Pollen Immunotherapy (Oral Allergy Syndrome) http://goo.gl/4cASx

Related reading

Oral symptoms from the ingestion of food in a patient with allergic rhinitis - AAAAI Ask the Expert, 2011.
In birch-apple syndrome (oral allergy syndrome), eating apple does not affect the respiratory tract. Annals of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology, 2011.

Published: 05/09/2010
Updated: 12/21/2011

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Janus kinase-signal transducer and activator of transcription (JAK-STAT) pathway

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

The Janus kinase-signal transducer and activator of transcription (JAK-STAT) pathway transmits information received from extracellular polypeptide signals, through transmembrane receptors, directly to target gene promoters in the nucleus, providing a mechanism for transcriptional regulation without second messengers. Evolutionarily conserved in eukaryotic organisms from slime molds to humans, JAK-STAT signaling appears to be an early adaptation to facilitate intercellular communication that has co-evolved with myriad cellular signaling events.


Key elements of the JAK-STAT pathway. Peter Znamenkiy, Wikipedia, public domain.

Mnemonic

J
JAK3 defect causes a form of SCID.
Janus
"Just fine" B cells (T-/B+/NK-)

Type I cytokine receptors are mediated through JAK/STAT and bind: IL-2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 12, 13, 15, GM-CSF.

IL7R plays a critical role in the V(D)J recombination during lymphocyte development. A defect in IL-7RA leads to SCID (T-/B+/NK+).

CD markers for central vs. effector memory T cells:

Central memory T cells: CD45RA-, CD27+, CCR7+, CD62L+
Effector memory T cells: CD45RA-, CD27-, CCR7-, CD62L-

A 3-month-old boy us diagnosed with JAK 3 SCID with symptoms of pneumonia, diarrhea and failure to thrive. Which CD markers will be in relatively normal numbers on flow cytometry?

(A) CD8
(B) CD20
(C) CD19
(D) CD56
(E) CD45RA
(F) CD4

Answer: B, C - markers of B cells.

JAK3 deficiency affects T-cells (CD4, CD8, CD45RA) and NK cells (C D56) and causes SCID T-B+/NK-.



Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) - 4 groups according to T/B/NK cells (click to enlarge the image).

A JAK inhibitor is the first approved drug (Jakafi) to treat myelofibrosis (NYTimes, 2011).

References

A Road Map for Those Who Don't Know JAK-STAT. Science 31 May 2002: Vol. 296. no. 5573, pp. 1653 - 1655, DOI: 10.1126/science.1071545.

Published: 05/09/2010
Updated: 11/15/2011

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Blot methods in laboratory diagnosis: Southern blot, Western blot, Northern blot, etc.

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

In basic science, a blot is a method of transferring proteins, DNA, or RNA onto a carrier. The following types are known:

- Southern blot to recognize DNA (used to detect TRECs in SCID diagnosis)
- Northern blot to recognize RNA
- Western blot to recognize proteins (used for HIV diagnosis)
- Eastern blot to recognize posttranslational modifications

Mnemonic

Logically, the whole process starts with DNA (and Southern blot was discovered first), then RNA, protein, and finally, posttranslational modification.

South -> North -> West

Other blots

- Southwestern blot for protein-DNA
- Far-Western blot for protein-protein
- Far-Eastern blot for lipids, drugs and hormones

A Southern blot is a method routinely used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. The method is named after its inventor, the British biologist Edwin Southern. Other blotting methods (i.e., Western blot, Northern blot, Eastern blot, Southwestern blot) that employ similar principles, but using RNA or protein, have later been named in reference to Edwin Southern's name. As the technique was eponymously named, Southern blot should be capitalized as is required for proper nouns, whereas names for other blotting methods should not.


Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) - 4 groups according to T/B/NK cells (click to enlarge the image).

Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)

Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) is used to detect the presence or absence of specific DNA sequences. DiGeorge syndrome is diagnosed by FISH (22q11.2 deletion).

References

Southern, E.M. (1975): "Detection of specific sequences among DNA fragments separated by gel electrophoresis", J Mol Biol., 98:503-517. PMID 1195397.
Southern blot. Wikipedia.

Published: 05/14/2010
Updated: 09/07/2010

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T-cell receptor excision circles (TRECs)

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

Advanced T-cell testing includes:

- Lymphocyte proliferative assays (LPA) to evaluate response to mitogens, Ag, and allogenic cells
- Lymphocyte mediated cytotoxicity – NK and ADCC activity
- Production of cytokines, TH2/TH1 and functional response to cytokines
- Signal transduction studies
- Northern blot analysis for mRNA
- T-cell receptor excision circles (TRECs)

Formation of TRECs

During their passage through the thymus, T-cell precursors rearrange their TCR genes. There are excisions of segments of DNA, the ends are ligated to form small circles called T-cell receptor excision circles (TRECs).

T-cell receptor excision circles (TRECs) can be used as a routine newborn screening protocol for SCID. DNA was extracted from DBSs NBS cards, and real-time quantitative PCR determined the number of TRECs (dried blood spots (DBSs), newborn screening (NBS) cards). No TRECs were detected in either the SCID or naive T-cell-depleted samples.

It is unknown what role the relatively bulky extracellular region of CD45 plays during cell interactions, but CD45 has various isoforms that change in size depending on the Th cell activation and maturation status. For example, CD45 shortens in length following Th activation (CD45RA+ to CD45RO+).

Thymus-derived naive CD45RA+ T cells carry TRECs. TREC in PBMC correlate with the percentage expression of CD45RA+.

The thymus is crucial in establishing a normal, diverse T-cell receptor (TCR) repertoire. TCRalpha/beta diversity is generated through rearrangements of the TCR alpha and TCR beta chain genes. The TCR delta chain locus lies within the TCR alpha chain locus and its excision forms the first step in TCR alpha chain gene rearrangement. The intervening excised DNA is circularized by the formation of a "signal joint" forming a DNA episome, termed a T-cell receptor excision circle (TREC).

70% of T cells emerging from the thymus contain one or two TRECs secondary to whether one or both TCRalpha loci genes were rearranged.

The thymus contributes naïve T (CD45RA+) cells with TRECs to the peripheral immune system, but memory T cells (CD45RO+) contain few if any detectable TRECs.

TRECs can serve as specific phenotypic marker for recent thymic emigrants. Real-time quantitative PCR can determine absolute TREC numbers and diagnose T- SCID.

T-cell receptor excision circles (TRECs) as routine newborn screening protocol for severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is characterized by the absence of functional T cells and B cells. Without early diagnosis and treatment, infants with SCID die from severe infections within the first year of life.

The researches tried to determined the feasibility of detecting SCID T(-)B(-)NK(+) in newborns by quantitating T-cell receptor excision circles (TRECs) from dried blood spots (DBSs) on newborn screening (NBS) cards (See what a TREC is here).

DNA was extracted from DBSs on deidentified NBS cards, and real-time quantitative PCR (RT-qPCR) was used to determine the number of TRECs.

No TRECs were detected in either the SCID or naive T-cell-depleted samples.

The authors concluded that the use of RT-qPCR to quantitate TRECs from DNA extracted from newborn DBSs is a highly sensitive and specific screening test for SCID. This assay is currently being used in Wisconsin for routine screening infants for SCID.

HIV and TRECs

HIV-1 infection decreases levels of TRECs. Successful highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) increases level of TRECs.


T and B Cells - Naive and Memory Cell Markers (click to enlarge the image).

What CD marker correlates well with T cell receptor excision circles (TRECs)?

(A) CD19
(B) CD45RO
(C) CD27
(D) CD45RA
(E) CD18
(F) CD15

A: D. Naive T lymphocytes express large CD45 isoforms and are usually positive for CD45RA. CD45RA cells contain TRECs. Activated and memory T lymphocytes express the shortest CD45 isoform, CD45RO. CD45RA is large and it shortens as the cell matures.

Receptors for IL-2, IL-4, IL-7, IL-9, IL-15, and IL-21 contain γ chain, which is affected in X-linked SCID.


(click to enlarge the image)


Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) - 4 groups according to T/B/NK cells (click to enlarge the image).

In SCID, the younger the age of the patient at the time of transplantation, the better the prognosis. There is a 95% survival rate in an infant who undergoes a transplant before 3 months of age. After six months, the survival rate decreases dramatically, to 50%.

References

Development of a routine newborn screening protocol for severe combined immunodeficiency. Baker MW, Grossman WJ, Laessig RH, Hoffman GL, Brokopp CD, Kurtycz DF, Cogley MF, Litsheim TJ, Katcher ML, Routes JM. J Allergy Clin Immunol. 2009 May 29.
The state of Wisconsin approach to newborn screening for SCID: 5 infants with SCID detected in 3 years. JACI, 2012.
Mitogens
Mind Maps: Primary Immunodeficiency (PID)
Video: Universal Newborn Screening for Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) by Quantitating T Cell Receptor Excision Circles (TRECs). University of Wisconsin.
TRECs are the most accurate noninvasive tool to detect T-cell SCID http://goo.gl/B680e
Screening for T-cell lymphopenia and SCID recommended as an addition to the newborn screening programs in all states. Expert Rev Clin Immunol. 2011 Nov;7(6):761-8.

Published: 05/12/2010
Updated: 01/12/2012

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Systemic mastocytosis

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

Pathogenesis

Systemic mastocytosis is characterized by clonal expansion of mast cells, and most patients present with a genetic mutation in the stem cell factor receptor (KIT) gene. KIT or C-kit receptor is also called CD117. KIT is cytokine receptor expressed on the cell surface. KIT receptors binds to stem cell factors which causes certain types of cells to grow.

Some patients present with eosinophilia and symptoms may overlap with the hypereosinophilic syndrome.

Diagnosis

Serum tryptase level differentiate systemic mastocytosis from anaphylaxis. Bone marrow biopys is needed for definitive diagnosis.

Treatment

Treatment options for systemic mastocytosis include:

- H1- and H2-histamine-receptor blockade (e.g., cetirizine and ranitidine)
- oral disodium cromoglycate blocks the release of mediators from mast cells
- leukotriene-receptor blockade (montelukast)
- inhibition of PGD2 generation with acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
- proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) (e.g., omeprazole)

Oral cromolyn sodium in the management of systemic mastocytosis

A multicenter, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial of the efficacy of oral cromolyn sodium (200 mg orally four times per day) was conducted in 11 patients with systemic mastocytosis who had been maintained with the drug on an individualized compassionate-need basis. When the symptom scores were analyzed for gastrointestinal manifestations of disease (diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting), cromolyn sodium treatment was significantly beneficial relative to placebo (p less than 0.02), whereas the benefit for nongastrointestinal manifestations did not reach statistical significance.

Oral cromolyn sodium is FDA-approved for management of systemic mastocytosis.

References

Cromolyn sodium in the management of systemic mastocytosis. Horan RF, Sheffer AL, Austen KF. J Allergy Clin Immunol. 1990 May;85(5):852-5.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/2110198
Advances in basic and clinical immunology in 2007. Journal of Allergy and Clinical Immunology - Volume 122, Issue 1 (July 2008).
Neuropeptide blood levels correlate with mast cell load in patients with mastocytosis http://goo.gl/vlQhm
Mastocytosis. NEJM blog, 2011.

Published: 02/12/2009
Updated: 03/03/2011

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Occupational Asthma

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist, Fort Lauderdale, FL

The workplace is a significant contributor to the burden of asthma. The majority of asthma cases probably represent what is labeled "work-exacerbated asthma". However, in a significant number of subjects, asthma is actually caused by one or more agents present in the workplace; this is occupational asthma.


Occupational Asthma (click to enlarge the image).

Occupational asthma (OA) may account for 25% or more of "de novo" adult asthma.

Two types of occupational asthma are distinguished:

1. Immunologic occupational asthma with a latency period due to high-molecular-weight agents (protein from animals, plants and food) and low-molecular-weight agents (hapten - platinum, penicillin, epoxy resin). Immunologic OA constitutes 85% of cases of OA

2. Non-immunologic occupational asthma without a latency period.

OA is caused by:

1. Immunologic OA - sensitizing agents
- high-molecular-weight agent such as a protein from biological sources
- low-molecular-weight reactive chemical such as isocyanate

Animal lab workers usually need 2 two years to develop sensitization. In contrast, flour workers need a significantly longer period for sensitization.

Allergic rhinitis usually precedes OA for HMW agents but not for LMW agents (haptens).

2. Non-immunologic OA - irritants, for example, the reactive airways dysfunction syndrome (RADS)

When evaluating patients for occupational asthma, sputum eosinophil counts at 7 and 24 hours after specific inhalation challenge have a greater sensitivity and positive predictive value than exhaled nitric oxide (eNO).

Reactive Airway Disease Syndrome (RADS)

RADS is non-allergic and non-immunologic OA. RADS occurs with a single, high dose exposure and has the following features:

- no latency
- onset within 24 hours
- persists for longer than 3 months

The major causes of RADS are soluble gases and fumes which are corrosive. An example of RADS is the World Trade Center-associated cough.

Agents implicated in RADS

Chlorine
Toluene diisocyanate
Phosgene
Sulfuric acid
Chlorine dioxide
Hydrochloric acid
Phosphoric acid
Hydrogen sulfate
Anhydrous ammonia
Sulfur dioxide

Timely removal from exposure leads to the best prognosis in OA.

Work-related asthma (WRA) has 3 phenotypes:

1. sensitizer-induced occupational asthma (OA) caused by high-molecular-weight (HMW) proteins or low-molecular-weight (LMW) chemicals

2. irritant-induced asthma

3. work-exacerbated asthma


Agents associated with occupational asthma (click to enlarge the image).

Agents associated with occupational asthma

Western Red Cedar mill
Plicatic acid

Body shop and spray paint
Isocyanates

Paints, adhesives, and plastics
Acid anhydride

Electronic soldering
Colophony, abietic acid and pimaric acid

Detergents
Alcalase

Catalytic converters
Platinum salts

Hairdressers
Ammonium persulfate

Printers, hairdressers
Gum acacia

Adhesives and epoxy resin
Phthalic anhydride

Plastics
Trimellitic anhydride

Bathtub paint, varnish, and lacquer
Toluene

Forest workers and carpenters
Wood dusts

Shellac and lacquer
Amines

Janitors
Chloramine

Hospital workers
Formaldehyde

Drug industry workers
Psyllium

Textile industry workers
Azo dyes

In a French study, physicians were asked to report newly diagnosed cases of work-related asthma and reactive airway dysfunction syndrome (RADS). 82.3% of 559 cases reported (64% males, mean age 36 yrs) involved occupational asthma, 4.7% RADS and 12.7% atypical asthma syndromes.

The most frequently suspected agents were flour (23.3%), followed by isocyanates (16.6%), latex (7.5%), aldehydes (5.5%), and persulphates (4.1%). Occupations at risk were bakers (23.9%), healthcare workers (12%), painters (9.1%), hairdressers (5.2%), wood industry workers (4.8%) and cleaners (3.5%).

References

Occupational asthma: Current concepts in pathogenesis, diagnosis, and management. Mark S. Dykewicz. JACI, Volume 123, Issue 3, Pages 519-528 (March 2009)
Agents causing occupational asthma. Jean-Luc Malo et al. JACI, Volume 123, Issue 3, Pages 545-550 (March 2009)
Hairdressers Working in Hair Salons for Women are at increased risk for occupational asthma - prevalence is 9.5% http://goo.gl/fKPDq
Occupational sensitization to soy allergens in workers at a processing facility, high molecular weight allergens Gly m 5 and Gly m 6 may be the respiratory sensitizers http://goo.gl/6oXYd
Workforce occupational asthma in New Zealand. The highest risks: printer/baker/sawmill labourer/metal processing. Ann Occup Hyg. 2010.

Published: 05/09/2010
Updated: 10/09/2011

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Mitogens

Author: V. Dimov, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at University of Chicago
Reviewer: S. Randhawa, M.D., Allergist/Immunologist and Assistant Professor at LSU (Shreveport) Department of Allergy and Immunology

A mitogen is a chemical substance that encourages a cell to commence cell division, triggering mitosis. A mitogen is usually a protein.

The most commonly used mitogens in laboratory medicine are:

NameActs upon T cells?Acts upon B cells?
phytohaemagglutinin (PHA)yesno
concanavalin A (conA)yesno
lipopolysaccharide (LPS)noyes
pokeweed mitogen (PWM)yesyes
Lipopolysaccharide toxin (LPS) from gram-negative bacteria is thymus independent. LPS may directly activate B cells. Staphylococcus aureus Cowan strain stimulates only B cells.

Mnemonic

B
Bacterial products - LPS, Staphylococcus aureus Cowan (SAC)
B cell stimulation

Pokeweed stimulates both T cells and B cells (mnemonic: "weed is everywhere").

Pokeweed mitogen (PWM) stimulates B and T lymphocytes, phytohemagglutinin (PHA) and concanavalin A stimulates T cells, and LPS and SAC stimulate B lymphocytes.

Lectins are sugar-binding proteins which are highly specific for their sugar moieties (Latin legere, "to select") http://bit.ly/3wgXl5


Crystallographic structure of a tetramer of concanavalin A. Image source: Wikipedia, public domain.

Concanavalin A is a lectin protein, binds specifically to glycoproteins - widely used in labs to characterize glycoproteins. http://bit.ly/ZEtKR

Concanavalin A is a lymphocyte mitogen along with phytohaemagglutinin (PHA) and pokeweed (PWM) http://bit.ly/15jH9T


Pokeweed (PWM). Image source: Wikipedia, GNU Free Documentation License.

Pokeweed mitogen (PWM) is derived from Phytolacca americana, considered a major pest by farmers http://bit.ly/sqVrD

References

Mitogen. Wikipedia.
Pokeweed mitogen and Staphylococcus aureus Cowan I induced immunoglobulin A synthesis by lymphocytes of IgA deficient blood donors. K Oen, M L Schroeder, and D Krzekotowska. Clin Exp Immunol. 1985 November; 62(2): 387–396.

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Published: 05/05/2010
Updated: 08/28/2010

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